Friday, October 30, 2015

Pre-Marital Sex pt. 5

taken from:

Christianity and premarital sex
There is much debate amongst Christians as to whether or not sex between two people who have never been married to anyone constitutes a form of fornication.[19] Witte argues that the Bible itself is silent on the issue of consensual, premarital sex between an engaged couple.[20] One theologian whose opinion stands contrary to Witte's claim was the medieval English monastic, John Baconthorpe, who believed it can be argued from the Bible that sex before marriage is immoral.[21] A more contemporary theologian, the modern day English Anglican Lee Gatiss also argues that premarital sex is immoral based on scripture. He states that, from a Biblical perspective, "physical union should not take place outside of a "one flesh" (i.e. marriage) union... In [1 Corinthians] chapter 7 Paul addresses the situation of two unmarried Christians who are burning with passion (7:8-9) who should either exercise self-control or get married (cf. verses 36-38). The underlying assumptions are the same as those in Deuteronomy 22."[22]
Some of the debate arises from the question of which theological approach is being applied. A deontological view of sex interprets porneia, aselgeia and akatharsia in terms of whether the couple are married or non-married. What makes sex moral or immoral is the context of marriage. By contrast, a teleological view interprets porneia, aselgeia and akatharsia in terms of the quality of the relationship (how well it reflects God's glory and Christian notions of a committed, virtuous relationship.)[23]
The discussion turns on two Greek words—moicheia (μοιχεία, adultery) and porneia (el:πορνεία, from which the word pornography is derived). The first word is restricted to contexts involving sexual betrayal of a spouse; however, the second word is used as a generic term for illegitimate sexual activity. Elsewhere in First Corinthians, incest, homosexual intercourse (according to some interpretations)[24] and prostitution are all explicitly forbidden by name (however, the Septuagint uses "porneia" to refer to male temple prostitution). Paul is preaching about activities based on levitical sexual prohibitions in the context of achieving holiness. The theory suggests it is these behaviours, and only these, that are intended by Paul's prohibition in chapter seven.[25]
One major academic theological work that equates porneia with premarital sex is Kittel and Friedrich's Theological Dictionary of the New Testament from 1977. In defining porneia as fornication, it states that "The NT is characterized by an unconditional repudiation of all extra-marital and unnatural intercourse."[26] Likewise, Friberg's Analytical Lexicon to the Greek New Testament defines porneia as being "generally, every kind of extramarital, unlawful or unnatural sexual intercourse."[27]
Lee Gatiss also argues that "porneia" does encompass premarital sex. He states that the word "fornication" has gone out of fashion and is not in common use to describe non-marital sex. However, it is an excellent translation for porneia, which basically referred to any kind of sex outside of marriage... This has been contested... but the overwhelming weight of scholarship and all the available evidence from the ancient world points firmly in this direction. "Flee sexual immorality (porneia) and pursue self-control" (cf. 1 Thess 4:1-8) was the straightforward message to Christians in a sex-crazed world."[22]
A survey undertaken by the American Sociological Review between 2000 and 2008 covering 31 developing countries found that "94 percent of Jews... reported having premarital sex, compared to 79 percent of Christians, 65 percent of Buddhists, 43 percent of Muslims and 19 percent of Hindus."[28]

Jesus and the early church
Attitudes towards marriage and sexuality at the time of Jesus stemmed from a blend of Roman and Jewish ideas. For instance, during the lifetime of Jesus, there was a strong social disapproval amongst Romans of polygamy. This made its way into Judaism and early Christianity, despite the Old Testament portraying examples of this behaviour amongst patriarchs and kings.[29]
Jewish marriage in the time of Jesus was a two-stage process. First, there was a betrothal in which the man claimed the woman to be his only bride. Secondly, there was the marriage contract which specified what the bride and groom's families would give the couple and what the bride would obtain if she divorced. "At the time of Jesus, and in rural areas like Galilee, a young couple might well co-habit before the contract was signed "in order to get acquainted.""[29] Jesus did not condemn sex at the betrothal stage nor approve of it as there is no record of any statements of his about this in the Gospels.
Jesus' teaching on divorce raised "the status of the wife from disposable dependent of the man to part of his very flesh."[29]
After the crucifixion, the early Church's statements on marital affairs mainly concerned acceptable reasons for divorce and remarriage. Whilst Paul, in his epistles to early believers, emphasised that both celibacy and marriage were good forms of life, after his life the Church felt that celibacy was more virtuous and liberating. This focus came about because the early church was very ascetic, possibly due to the influence of Greek philosophical thought. The focus on celibacy meant that other issues relating to sexual morality for the non-celibate remained under-developed.[29]
Augustine of Hippo's views strongly influenced how later Christians thought about sex. In his later writings, he was "deeply suspicious of sexual passion" and this has influenced the outlook of all the major Christian denominations down to the present day.[30]
It was some time later, during the sixth century, that the Emperor Justinian formulated laws that were to become the basis of Western marriage law for the next millennia. Under his legislation, co-habiting couples were no longer recognised as married and their children were regarded as illegitimate, with the same status as the children of prostitutes. However, the status of illegitimate children could be updated if the parents later married.

Monday, October 5, 2015

Pre-Marital Sex pt. 4

Jewish Views on Premarital Sex

taken from article:

Judaism’s attitude toward premarital sex is intriguing. The Torah does not outlaw it–as it does many other types of sexual relationships–and the child of such a union is not considered a mamzer (illegitimate). Nonetheless, marital sex is considered ideal, and premarital sex is traditionally not approved of.
The negative attitude toward premarital sex, to a large degree, reflects the overwhelmingly positive attitude toward sex within marriage. Marriage is referred to as kiddushin, which comes from the Hebrew word for “holy.” In Judaism, holy things are things that are set apart and made special and unique.
When sex is reserved for marriage, it too is considered holy. Most Jewish authorities disapprove of premarital sex because it does not take place within the context of kiddushin.
What of a long-term committed sexual relationship in which two people–though not married–have designated each other as their exclusive partner? This question has been raised by some liberal Jewish thinkers; however, both the Conservative and Reform movement (officially) reject the possibility of attributing kedushah (holiness) to such a relationship.
As mentioned, the Torah does not directly prohibit premarital sex. Indeed, at times, rabbinic authorities  and traditional sources have been lenient in this area. In medieval Spain, Nahmanides permitted sex with an unmarried woman who was not involved with another man. Nonetheless, for traditional Jews, premarital sex is not without halakhic (legal) complication. The Torah prohibits sex between a man and a woman who is menstruating (known as a niddah). This prohibition is in place until the woman’s period is complete and she immerses in a mikveh or ritual bath. This restriction applies to both married and unmarried couples, though it is considered inappropriate for a non-married woman (except for a soon-to-be bride) to immerse in a mikveh. Thus sex between an unmarried man and woman can violate a Torah decree.
Interestingly, the Torah does sanction one type of non-marital sexual relationship: concubinage. A concubine or pilegesh is a woman who, though involved exclusively with one man, does not receive the legal benefits of marriage. In biblical times, concubines were kept in addition to a wife or wives. In recent centuries, Jewish authorities have, for the most part, dismissed the validity of concubinage. An interesting exception is the 18th century legal authority Jacob Emden, who suggested re-instituting the practice. Today, liberal authorities like Arthur Waskow are once again exploring the viability of this concept.
Other liberal authorities have pointed out the need to develop a new sexual ethic to address the reality of premarital sex. Waskow, a leader in the Jewish Renewal movement, suggests altering our expectation of marriage to “make it easy for sexually active people from puberty on to enter and leave marriages.” Even the Conservative and Reform movements, who still stress the ideal of marital sex, acknowledge that Judaism’s position on human sexuality is not consonant with the trends of contemporary life. Both denominations have suggested that premarital sexual relationships–where they exist–should be conducted according to the ethical principles that govern married sex: namely with the respect due to all humans as beings created in the image of God. In addition, Conservative rabbi Elliot Dorff has stressed the importance of modesty, fidelity, and health and safety in non-marital sex.

Sunday, October 4, 2015

Thoughts from Yared Yahu pt. 1

Words from Yared Yahu
I was once indicated by a person that he 'doesn't believe in hebrew'. Of course the world is led to believe that the Creator should change for you, not you change for Him. People just don't believe in Hebrew...

col 1:25-26
"Of this church I was made a minister according to the stewardship from Alahim bestowed on me for your benefit, so that I might fully carry out the preaching of the word of Alahim, 26 that is, the mystery which has been hidden from the past ages and generations, but has now been manifested to His saints"

So Mashiach is a mystery, revealed to those who are in the Word. The mystery is the Messiah and the belief in His Name is the answer to it.
This mystery is further explained in col 3 and col 4 and ephesians 3 and 4. A mystery indicates there is searching involved in finding the truth and the verse states only His saints will find it.

Jeremiah 6
 16Thus saith Yahuah, Stand ye in the ways, and see, and ask for the old paths, where is the good way, and walk therein, and ye shall find rest for your souls. But they said, We will not walk therein.

The ancient paths, the old ways, are the roads that we must take. This means understanding what Jeremiah was talking about in his era, not in our own. Once again this requires going to Alahim, not Him coming to you. 1 John 2 also discusses walking in the old ways.

Psalms 9:10
And they that know thy name will put their trust in thee: for thou, Yahuah, hast not forsaken them that seek thee.

Again seeking Him is key, knowing His Name and putting trust in His Word. But what does that mean, to trust His Word? It means keeping His commandments. The text also implies that some will know His Name and others wont.

Ecc 12:13
 Let us hear the conclusion of the whole matter: Fear Alahim, and keep his commandments: for this is the whole duty of man

Pretty simple and contrary to what people believe to be the meaning of life. Solomon simply states here that the meaning of life is to fear Yahuah and keep His commandments. Of course the third commandment is to not take His Name in vain, where vain is the word shua, which means nothingness, desolation, non-use.

Matt 6:33
 But seek ye first the kingdom of Alahim, and his righteousness; and all these things shall be added unto you.

Seeking the kingdom is of first importance. What are we going to be doing in our fathers kingdom but following His law and calling His Name. If we do neither now what right do we have in the kingdom? This is what we should worry about.  Matt 22 is a parable discussing the Kingdom of Alahim and the requirements thereof. The word righteousness is thrown around for so many things, so how does the bible define righteousness?

Deutoronomy 6:25
  25 And it shall be our righteousness, if we observe to do all these commandments before Yahuah Alahinu, as he hath commanded us.

THIS is the definition of righteousness, that we keep His commandments, as He commanded us. The word righteousness is Zadak in Hebrew, which directly translates to justice, lawful, right ruling etc and is also in the word Melchizadak (king of righteousness) which is the order under which the Messiah Yahusha is a priest. But why should we call on His Name in Hebrew?

Acts 26:14-15
 14And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice speaking unto me, and saying in the Hebrew tongue, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks. 15And I said, Who art thou, Lord? And he said, I am Yahusha whom thou persecutest

Paul indicates directly that the Messiah told him His Name in Hebrew, not greek, not latin, not English. And since there is only one Name (acts 4:12), to be obedient unto righteousness (romans 6:16) is to call on this Name as it was then, not as it is now. But the bible is imfallible and all scripture is made for reproof and wisdom? How could the bible have mistakes or even deceptions?

Jeremiah 8:8-9
 8How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of Yahuah is with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he it; the pen of the scribes is in vain. 9The wise men are ashamed, they are dismayed and taken: lo, they have rejected the word of Yahuah; and what wisdom is in them?

This states that the pen of the scribes is in vain having rejected the word. Corrupting the word is an ancient practice and one must 'search diligently the scriptures' but in most cases since people don't believe in Hebrew it will not make a difference the knowledge of the bible. Then it is here we are left again with Paul:

Titus 3:9-11
 9 But avoid foolish questions, and genealogies, and contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and vain. 10 A man that is an heretic after the first and second admonition reject; 11 Knowing that he that is such is subverted, and sinneth, being condemned of himself.

It falls on us all at some point to make a decision, to reject the world or to accept it. Rejecting that Hebrew understanding is necessary is rejecting the Word. Accepting Jesus as is, is the basis being the anti-messiah doctrine and is the 'lawless one' whom paul aslo speaks of:

2 Thessalonians 2:7-8
7For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way. 8And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom Yahuah shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:

There is a mystery for righteous and a mystery for the unrighteous, which is that of iniquity/lawlessness. Those who don't have the law or His Name, have nothing in Mashiach as these are the requirements for the kingdom (rev 22 12)

2 Thessalonians 2:13-15
13But we are bound to give thanks always to Alahim for you, brethren beloved of Yahuah, because Alahim hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth: 14Whereunto he called you by our gospel, to the obtaining of the glory of our Adoni Yahusha Ha Mashiach. 15Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.